From: | Ying Liew <ying.liew@unimelb.edu.au> |
To: | Gerard Sadlier <gerard.sadlier@gmail.com> |
CC: | obligations@uwo.ca |
Date: | 05/03/2023 15:03:15 UTC |
Subject: | Re: [EXT] Constructive Trusts and Proprietary Estoppel Questions |
‘Reanalysing Institutional and Remedial Constructive Trusts’ (2016) 75 Cambridge Law Journal 528–549
‘Constructive Trusts and Discretion in Australia: Taking Stock’ (2021) 44 Melbourne University Law Review 963–1000
‘The “Joint Endeavour Constructive Trust” Doctrine in Australia: Deconstructing Unconscionability’ (2021) 42 Adelaide Law Review 73–100
On proprietary estoppel —
‘The “Prima Facie Expectation Relief” Approach in the Australian Law of Proprietary Estoppel’ (2019) 39 Oxford Journal of Legal Studies 183–208
‘Proprietary Estoppel in Australia: Two Options for Exercising Remedial Discretion’ (2020) 43 University of New South Wales Law Journal 281–306
‘The Remedial Approach to Proprietary Estoppel in Singapore’ [2020] Conveyancer and Property Lawyer 11– 28
Yours
Ying
On 1 Mar 2023, at 2:08 pm, Gerard Sadlier <gerard.sadlier@gmail.com> wrote:
External email: Please exercise caution
Dear all
I'd be really grateful for recommendations regarding literature (and
references to leading non-UK cases) regarding remedial constructive
trusts. (Self-promotion gratefully received.) I'm trying to understand
the discretionary factors that motivate those Courts that do recognise
remedial constructive trusts to impose them in a given case more
fully than I do (doubtless due to my own limitations).
Separately, one question regarding proprietary estoppel that I have
never understood is this:
In what circumstances ought the Court to make an order regarding
specific property (say an order that a specific farm (the cases do
seem to be disproportionately about farms for whatever reason), a
house etc. or an interest therein be
transferred) as opposed to an order for financial compensation to
satisfy the equity created by reason of such a proprietary estoppel?
Suppose by my conduct I have acted so as to make it inequitable for me
to deprive another of an interest in property promised to them (the
classic case of "some day all this will be yours my son and until
then, please work for me for next to nothing to make it better".) In
what circumstances ought I to be obliged to transfer an interest in
specific property and in what circumstances ought I to be able to say
I will make good the equity by paying money (which will enable the
recippient to buy another farm, property, piece of art, whatever the
case concerns.)
Kind regards
Ger